Solved 2026 Question Paper ICSE Class 10 History & Civics

Choose the correct option to replace the underlined word:
The collection of State Revenue falls under the Consultative Jurisdiction of the High Court.

1. Advisory
2. Revisory
3. Original
4. Appellate

Answer

Original

Reason — Matters relating to State revenue and its collection fall under the Original Jurisdiction of the High Court, as such cases can be heard and decided by it in the first instance.

Which session of the Parliament is most associated with this picture?

1. Budget Session
2. Summer Session
3. Winter Session
4. Monsoon Session

Answer

Budget Session

Reason — The picture symbolises the finances of the country. The Union Budget, containing the estimates of receipts and expenditure of the Government for a financial year, is introduced and considered during the Budget Session of Parliament.

Given below are the details of a few Indian Citizens.

Select the one who is eligible to be a Vice President.

1. X
2. W
3. Y
4. Z

Answer

Z

Reason — To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person must be a citizen of India, must have completed 35 years of age, must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha and must not hold any office of profit under the government. W (30 years), X (25 years) and Y (34 years) are all below the required age of 35 years. Z, aged 69 and retired, fulfils the age criterion and holds no office of profit. Hence, only Z is eligible.

The rule mentioned in the headline below can be proclaimed in a state on the recommendation of ............... .

1. The President
2. The Vice President
3. The Governor
4. The Chief Justice of India

Answer

The Governor

Reason — The headline refers to President's Rule, which is proclaimed when there is a breakdown of the constitutional machinery in a State. On receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, if the President is satisfied that the governance of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, he/she declares an emergency in that State. The President proclaims the rule but does not recommend it, while the Vice-President and the Chief Justice of India have no role in it.

Mr. Anand has been illegally detained by the police, and his family has not been able to meet him. The family members have approached the High Court for help. Which writ will the court issue in this case?

1. Habeas Corpus
2. Quo Warranto
3. Mandamus
4. Certiorari

Answer

Habeas Corpus

Reason — Habeas Corpus means 'to have the body'. By issuing this writ, the High Court can order that a person who has been unlawfully detained be produced before it and released. It is therefore a safeguard for the personal freedom of a citizen.

Identify the correct statements about the Lok Sabha.

P: Has no nominated members.
Q: Term can be extended during emergency.
R: Has two members nominated by the President.
S: Can be dissolved by the Speaker.

1. P and Q
2. R and S
3. Q and R
4. P and S

Answer

P and Q

Reason — The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2020) did away with the nomination of Anglo-Indians, so the Lok Sabha now has no nominated members. Hence P is correct and R is wrong. During the proclamation of an emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha may be extended by Parliament for one year at a time, so Q is correct. The Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and not by the Speaker, so S is wrong.

Assertion (A): Hitler attacked Poland to capture the Danzig Port.

Reason (R): Poland was accused of committing atrocities against the Germans.

1. (A) is true and (R) is false.
2. (A) is false and (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation — By the Treaty of Versailles, Germany was divided into two parts to give Poland a land-route to the sea and the Port of Danzig was given to Poland. As Danzig was inhabited mainly by Germans, Hitler invaded Poland in September 1939 to regain these lost territories. So (A) is true. Poland was also accused of committing atrocities against the Germans living there, so (R) is true as well. However, this accusation was a separate excuse put forward by Hitler and does not explain his aim of capturing the Danzig Port.

Identify the option which shows the correct chronology of the following events:
1. The Lucknow Pact
2. The Surat Split
3. The establishment of the Muslim League

1. 1-2-3
2. 1-3-2
3. 3-2-1
4. 2-1-3

Answer

3-2-1

Reason — The All-India Muslim League was established on December 30, 1906, the Surat Split took place in 1907 and the Lucknow Pact was signed in 1916.

Identify the odd one out of the following signatories of the Triple Entente.

1. France
2. Russia
3. Japan
4. England

Answer

Japan

Reason — The Triple Entente consisted of France, Russia and Britain. Japan was not a member of the Triple Entente, although it later fought on the Allied side during the First World War.

In the town of Sundar Nagar, the local government decided to cut down a large number of trees to build a shopping mall. The children were upset because the trees provided a place to play. A group of school students, decided to take action based on the lesson they had studied about the Early Nationalists.
Which of the following actions are they NOT likely to adopt?

1. Hold placards with the message 'Save Our Trees'.
2. Write letters to the local newspapers expressing their concerns.
3. Plant saplings to show their commitment to the environment.
4. Forcibly prevent workers sent by the Government.

Answer

Forcibly prevent workers sent by the Government.

Reason — The Early Nationalists followed Constitutional Agitation and relied on peaceful and lawful methods such as petitions, prayers, protests, meetings and the press. Forcibly preventing the workers would therefore be contrary to the methods followed by them.

Under which policy of expansion was the place marked in the map annexed by the British?

1. The Doctrine of Lapse
2. The Subsidiary Alliance
3. Pretext of misgovernance
4. Outright wars

Answer

Pretext of misgovernance

Reason — The area marked on the map is Awadh. In 1856, Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh to the Company's dominions on the pretext of alleged misrule. He declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and that British rule was needed to ensure proper administration.

Identify the correct pair of words from the given options:

1. Doctrine of Lapse – Lord Canning
2. Subsidiary Alliance – Lord Wellesley
3. Arms Act – Lord Curzon
4. Vernacular Press Act – Lord Dalhousie

Answer

Subsidiary Alliance – Lord Wellesley

Reason — The Subsidiary Alliance was introduced in India by Lord Wellesley, so this pair is correct. The Doctrine of Lapse was applied by Lord Dalhousie and not by Lord Canning, while the Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act (both 1878) were passed by Lord Lytton and not by Lord Curzon or Lord Dalhousie.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the Second World War?

1. Cold War
2. Defeat of the Axis Powers
3. Formation of the United Nations
4. Formation of the League of Nations

Answer

Formation of the League of Nations

Reason — The League of Nations was established after the First World War. The defeat of the Axis Powers, the formation of the United Nations and the beginning of the Cold War were consequences of the Second World War.

Read the description and choose the correct option:
He was an Early Nationalist leader who presided over the second session of the Indian National Congress.

1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
3. Bipin Chandra Pal
4. Lokmanya Tilak

Answer

Dadabhai Naoroji

Reason — The second session of the Indian National Congress was held at Kolkata in 1886 under the Presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji, an Early Nationalist leader. Gopal Krishna Gokhale was also an Early Nationalist but did not preside over this session, while Bipin Chandra Pal and Lokmanya Tilak were Assertive Nationalists.

Which organ of the United Nations Organisation gives this special power to its permanent members?

1. The General Assembly
2. The International Court of Justice
3. The Security Council
4. The Trusteeship Council

Answer

The Security Council

Reason — The cartoon shows the veto power. The Security Council has five permanent members and the negative vote of any one of them is called a veto. The Council is powerless to act if any permanent member uses this power. The General Assembly, the International Court of Justice and the Trusteeship Council do not have permanent members enjoying such a power.

The International Court of Justice has ............... judges.

1. 15
2. 10
3. 9
4. 5

Answer

15

Reason — The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges, each of a different nationality, elected for a term of nine years by the General Assembly and the Security Council sitting independently of each other. Elections are held every three years for one-third of the seats.

Mention any two reasons for the indirect election of the President.

Answer

Two reasons for the indirect election of the President are:

1. If the President were to be elected directly by the people, he/she could become a rival centre of power to the Council of Ministers. This would go against the parliamentary system of government based on ministerial responsibility.
2. If the President were elected only by the members of Parliament, he/she might become a nominee of the ruling party like the Prime Minister and would not adequately represent the States of the Union. Election through an Electoral College of elected MPs and MLAs ensures that the President represents the entire nation, including the States.

Imagine you were part of the Indian National Army. Mention any two objectives of the army.

Answer

As a soldier of the Indian National Army, two of our main objectives were:

1. To organise an armed revolution and to fight the British army with modern arms.
2. To organise a Provisional Government of Free India so that all the forces could be mobilised effectively for the liberation of the country.

Look at the picture given and answer the question that follow.

In which year did this Partition happen? Who was responsible for this Partition?

Answer

The map shows the Partition of Bengal, which took place in the year 1905.

Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, was responsible for this Partition.

Mention any two objectives of the Muslim League.

Answer

Two objectives of the Muslim League were:

1. To promote among the Muslims of India support for the British government and to remove any misconceptions regarding the intentions of the government in relation to Indian Muslims.
2. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims and to represent their needs and aspirations to the government in mild and moderate language.

UNESCO provides protection for great cultural institutions.
Mention any two ways in which it works towards the preservation of cultural heritage.

Answer

Two ways in which UNESCO works towards the preservation of cultural heritage are:

1. It provides technical advice and assistance, equipment and funds for the preservation of monuments and other works of art. It has also prepared a World Heritage List to identify the monuments and sites which are to be protected.
2. It aims to protect the world inheritance of books, works of art and rare manuscripts, and gives encouragement to artistic creations in literature and fine arts.

Mention any two causes for the Second World War.

Answer

Two causes of the Second World War were:

1. Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles — Its harsh and humiliating terms created resentment and a desire for revenge in Germany.
2. Rise of Fascism and Nazism — Extreme nationalism under Mussolini and Hitler resulted in aggressive and expansionist policies.

President Ramnath Kovind promulgates an Ordinance which will legally allow the farmers to sell their produce without restrictions across the country.

— The Times of India, 5th June 2020

When can the President introduce an Ordinance? When does an Ordinance become inoperative?

Answer

The President can promulgate an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session and circumstances make it necessary to take immediate action.

An Ordinance must be laid before Parliament when it reassembles. It becomes inoperative six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is approved by Parliament before that period.

The Union Parliament comprises the President and the two houses. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three powers which are common to both the houses of the Parliament.

(ii) Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha? Mention any two exclusive powers to analyse the advantages of the Rajya Sabha.

(iii) The Parliament controls the functioning of the Executive. Mention any four ways in which it exercises control.

Answer

(i) The two Houses of Parliament enjoy equal power and status in the following matters:

1. Legislative Powers — All Bills other than Money Bills may originate in either House, and no Bill can become a law unless it is passed by both the Houses.
2. Judicial Powers — Both Houses have equal powers in the impeachment of the President and in the removal of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Impeachment can be initiated in either House and the other House has an equal say in the judgement.
3. Amendment of the Constitution — An amendment must be passed by each House by a majority of its total membership and by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting.

(ii) The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The representatives of the Union Territories are chosen in such a manner as Parliament may prescribe.

Two exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha are:

1. The Rajya Sabha may, by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declare that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List in the national interest. This resolution can be passed only by the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha may similarly declare, by a two-thirds majority, that it is necessary in the national interest to create a new All-India Service, after which Parliament may create such a service.

(iii) Parliament exercises control over the Executive in the following ways:

1. Interpellation — Devices such as the Question Hour, Calling Attention Notices and Half-an-Hour Discussion enable members to seek information from the government about its policies and performance.
2. Vote of No-Confidence — The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. If a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the government has to resign.
3. Other Motions of Censure — An Adjournment Motion, a censure motion against a minister, the rejection of a Government Bill or the passing of a private member's Bill against the wishes of the Government all amount to no-confidence in the government.
4. Monetary Control — During the budget session a cut motion may be moved. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament's decisions.

The Prime Minister is the executive head of the country. With reference to the Prime Minister and his Cabinet, answer the following questions:

(i) On whose advice are the Cabinet Ministers appointed? Name the other two categories of the Council of Ministers.

(ii) What is meant by the term collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers?

(iii) The Prime Minister is central to the life of the Cabinet.
Justify this statement by mentioning any four powers of the Prime Minister with reference to the Cabinet.

Answer

(i) The Cabinet Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister selects his/her senior and trustworthy colleagues and advises the President to appoint them.

The other two categories of the Council of Ministers are Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.

(ii) Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The principle of collective responsibility implies the following:

1. The decisions taken in the meetings of the Cabinet are equally applicable to all the Ministers, even though they may differ among themselves on a particular policy.
2. All Ministers jointly share the responsibility for the government's policies and performance. They must function as a team in supporting and defending government policies inside as well as outside Parliament.
3. A Vote of No-Confidence against one Minister is a vote against the whole Ministry. A Ministry that has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha has to resign.

(iii) The Prime Minister is central to the life of the Cabinet because of the following powers:

1. Leader of the Cabinet — The Prime Minister is the head of the Cabinet. The Constitution makes no provision for the appointment of different categories of Ministers, so it is the Prime Minister who decides these matters.
2. Power to Select and Dismiss Ministers — The Prime Minister chooses the Ministers and recommends their names to the President. He/She can also ask an erring Minister to resign.
3. Power to Allocate Portfolios and Reshuffle the Council of Ministers — It is the Prime Minister who allocates departments or portfolios to the Ministers and he/she can reshuffle the Council of Ministers whenever he/she pleases.
4. Power to Direct and Coordinate Policy — The Prime Minister coordinates the working of the various departments so that administration is carried on smoothly. Moreover, the Prime Minister's resignation implies the resignation of the whole Cabinet.

The single integrated system of judiciary has the Supreme Court at the apex. With reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the term of the Supreme Court Judge? Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be a Supreme Court Judge.

(ii) Mention any three ways in which the Constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary.

(iii) Explain the following terms:

1. Advisory Jurisdiction
2. Judicial Review

Answer

(i) A Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until he/she attains the age of 65 years.

Two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court are — he/she must be a citizen of India, and:

1. He/She should have been a Judge of a High Court, or of two or more such courts in succession, for at least five years; or
2. He/She should have been an advocate of a High Court, or of two or more such courts in succession, for at least ten years.

(ii) The Constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary in the following ways:

1. Security of Tenure — A Judge remains in office till the age of 65 years and can be removed by the President only on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, through the difficult process of impeachment.
2. Security of Salaries and Service Conditions — The salaries and allowances of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to the vote of Parliament. They cannot be changed to the disadvantage of the Judges during their term of office.
3. Prohibition of Practice after Retirement — The Judges are not allowed to practise after their retirement, so that they are not obliged during their tenure to any prospective employer and cannot influence their former colleagues.

(iii)
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction — The Supreme Court has the power to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance which is referred to it by the President of India. Such an opinion is only advisory; it is not binding on the government, nor is it executable as a judgement of the Supreme Court.

(b) Judicial Review — The Supreme Court has the power to review the laws passed by the Union or the State legislatures and the orders of the executive. It can declare a law 'ultra vires', i.e., null and void, if it goes against the letter and spirit of the Constitution or contravenes any of its provisions.

The 1857 Revolt is also referred to as the Sepoy Mutiny by the British. With reference to the role played by the soldiers, answer the following questions:

(i) What was the General Service Enlistment Act? Why were soldiers unhappy with it?

(ii) How did the introduction of the new Enfield Rifle become an immediate cause of the revolt?

(iii) The British reformed the army after the revolt ended.
Mention any four changes made in the army.

Answer

(i) The General Service Enlistment Act was passed by the British Parliament in 1856. According to this Act, Indian soldiers could be sent overseas on duty.

The soldiers were unhappy with it because, according to traditional belief, crossing the seas was a taboo, especially for a Brahmin. The Act did not take into account the religious sentiments of the Indian soldiers. The Brahmin soldiers saw in it a danger to their caste, and this led to a strong feeling of resentment among them.

(ii) In 1856, the British authorities decided to replace the old-fashioned musket, called the Brown Bess, with the new Enfield rifle. The loading process of the Enfield rifle involved bringing the cartridge to the mouth and biting off the top greased paper with the teeth.

In January 1857, a rumour spread in the Bengal regiments that the greased cartridge contained the fat of the cow and the pig. As the cow is sacred to the Hindus and the pig is a taboo for the Muslims, the sepoys were convinced that the introduction of the greased cartridges was a deliberate move to defile Hindu and Muslim religions. Both Hindu and Muslim soldiers refused to use these cartridges and staged an uprising when they were forced to use them. Thus, it became the immediate cause of the Revolt.

(iii) Four changes made in the Indian army after the Revolt were:

1. The strength of European troops in India was increased and the ratio of European to Indian troops was fixed at 1:2 in the Bengal army and 2:5 in the Madras and Bombay armies. The general principle adopted was that the number of Indian sepoys should not exceed twice that of the European troops.
2. European troops were kept in key geographical and military positions.
3. Sophisticated weapons and ammunition were never placed under the charge of Indians, and all Indian artillery units, with the exception of a few mountain units, were disbanded.
4. Newspapers, journals and nationalist publications were prevented from reaching the soldiers, so as to keep the Indian army separated from the life of the rest of the population.

Mahatma Gandhi with his principle of Non-violence, changed the direction of the freedom movement. With reference to the Gandhian Movements, answer the following:

(i) Who launched the Khilafat Movement in India? Mention two other causes of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(ii) Mention any three points to analyse the impact of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

(iii) Mention any four clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

Answer

(i) The Khilafat Movement was launched in India by the Ali Brothers — Maulana Mohammed Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali.

Two other causes of the Non-Cooperation Movement were:

1. The Rowlatt Act (1919) — This Act authorised the Government to arrest a person without a warrant, hold trials in seclusion and imprison a person without trial. It came as a sudden blow to the Indians who were expecting self-governance.
2. The Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy — On April 13, 1919, General Dyer ordered his troops to fire on a large but peaceful crowd gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. About a thousand innocent people were killed. The British government further refused to annul the Rowlatt Act or make amends for the atrocities in Punjab.

(ii) The Non-Cooperation Movement made a deep impact in the following ways:

1. The National Movement Became a Mass Movement — For the first time in history, the national movement acquired a real mass base, with the participation of peasants, workers, students, teachers and women.
2. It Instilled Confidence Among the People — The movement generated a desire for freedom and gave the people a new sense of self-confidence and self-esteem to openly defy the foreign rulers.
3. It Fostered Hindu-Muslim Unity — The merger of the Khilafat issue with the Non-Cooperation Movement brought Hindus and Muslims together in the national struggle.

(iii) Four clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed in March 1931, were:

1. The Government agreed to withdraw all ordinances and end prosecutions.
2. The Government agreed to release all political prisoners, except those guilty of violence.
3. The Government agreed to permit the free collection or manufacture of salt by persons living near the seacoast.
4. The Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

India's last Viceroy released a plan on the country's independence from the British on June 3, 1947. The plan came to be celebrated as the 'last plan for independence'. He was appointed Viceroy to India to speed up the process of transfer of power by the then British Prime Minister Clement Atlee.

hindustantimes.com, June 3, 2021 [edited]

(i) Identify the Viceroy. Mention any two terms of his plan with reference to the Princely States.

(ii) Mention any three reasons given by the Congress to justify the acceptance of the plan.

(iii) Mention any four provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947.

Answer

(i) The Viceroy referred to in the passage is Lord Mountbatten.

Two terms of his plan with reference to the Princely States were:

1. The treaties which the British had made with the Princely States would come to an end, i.e., British paramountcy over them would lapse.
2. The Princely States would be free to associate themselves with either of the two Dominions — India or Pakistan — or to remain independent.

(ii) Three reasons given by the Congress to justify the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan were:

1. The large-scale communal riots that engulfed the whole country convinced the leaders that the only solution to the communal problem lay in the Partition of India.
2. The Muslim League had joined the Interim Government to obstruct and not to cooperate. The experience of working with the League had convinced the Congress that it could not have a joint administration with it.
3. The only alternative to Partition was a federation with a weak Centre. The leaders felt that a smaller India with a strong central authority was better than a bigger State with a weak Centre, and that any further delay in the transfer of power could find India in the midst of a civil war.

(iii) Four provisions of the Indian Independence Act, 1947 were:

1. Two New Dominions — India would be partitioned and two independent Dominions, India and Pakistan, would be created from August 15, 1947. The exact boundaries of the two Dominions would be determined by a Boundary Commission.
2. Governor-General for Each Dominion — There would be a Governor-General for each Dominion, appointed by the British King on the advice of the Cabinet of the concerned Dominion. This arrangement would work till the framing of the Constitutions.
3. Constituent Assemblies to Serve as Central Legislatures — The Constituent Assemblies of both the Dominions were to act as the Central Legislatures with full powers to make laws for their respective Dominions, and would act as sovereign bodies for legislative purposes.
4. End of the Jurisdiction of the British Parliament — The legislative authority of the British Parliament would cease from August 15, 1947, and the British monarch would give up the use of the title 'Emperor of India'.

Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:

(i) Explain the immediate cause of the war associated with this headline.

(ii) According to the Treaty of Versailles, mention the following:

1. The war reparation to be paid by Germany.
2. Two ways in which France benefitted from the Treaty.

(iii) Name the two dictators who rose in Europe after this war. Mention any two common causes for the rise of dictatorship.

Answer

(i) The immediate cause of the First World War was the Sarajevo Crisis. Archduke Francis Ferdinand, heir to the throne of Austria-Hungary, was assassinated at Sarajevo on June 28, 1914. Austria served an ultimatum on Serbia, and when Serbia did not accept all its demands, Austria declared war on Serbia on July 28, 1914. The alliance system soon drew the other European powers into the war.

(ii)
(a) The war reparation imposed on Germany was fixed at 33 billion US dollars.

(b) Two ways in which France benefitted from the Treaty were:

1. Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine to France.
2. The coal mines in the German area called Saar were ceded to France for 15 years, the area itself being governed by the League of Nations.

(iii) The two dictators who rose in Europe after this war were Benito Mussolini in Italy and Adolf Hitler in Germany.

Two common causes for the rise of dictatorship were:

1. Discontentment after the Treaty of Versailles — Italy did not receive the territories she had hoped for, while Germany was humiliated by the harsh terms of the Treaty. This bitterness gave rise to a spirit of revenge and aggressive nationalism in both countries.
2. Economic Crisis — Both countries suffered heavy losses of life and property in the First World War. Trade and commerce were ruined, leading to large-scale unemployment and a shortage of food grains. The people therefore looked towards a strong leader who could solve their problems.

The United Nations Organisation and the Non-Aligned Movement emerged after the Second World War. With reference to these, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three objectives of the United Nations Organisation.

(ii) The General Assembly is the deliberative organ of the United Nations. Mention any three functions of the General Assembly to analyse this statement.

(iii) With reference to the Non-Aligned Movement, mention:

1. Any two architects
2. Any two objectives

Answer

(i) Three objectives of the United Nations Organisation are:

1. To maintain international peace and security, and to take collective measures for the prevention and removal of threats to peace and for the suppression of acts of aggression.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of people.
3. To achieve international cooperation in solving international economic, social, cultural or humanitarian problems, and to encourage respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms.

(ii) The General Assembly is the main deliberative organ of the United Nations, as is shown by the following functions:

1. It discusses any question relating to international peace and security and, except where the dispute is currently being discussed by the Security Council, makes recommendations on it.
2. It discusses and makes recommendations on any question within the scope of the Charter or affecting the powers and functions of any organ of the United Nations.
3. It considers and makes recommendations on the principles of cooperation in the maintenance of international peace and security, and initiates studies to promote international political, social and economic cooperation.

(iii)
(a) Two architects of the Non-Aligned Movement were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru of India and President Joseph Broz Tito of Yugoslavia. (President Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt was the third founding father.)

(b) Two objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement were:

1. To oppose colonialism, imperialism and racial discrimination, and to protect the newly won freedom of the independent countries of Asia and Africa from colonial domination.
2. To advocate the peaceful settlement of international disputes and to oppose the use of force and of nuclear weapons.