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Mathematics

Show that a2, b2 and c2 are in A.P., if

1b+c,1c+a and 1a+b\dfrac{1}{b + c}, \dfrac{1}{c + a} \text{ and } \dfrac{1}{a + b} are in A.P.

AP

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Answer

Since 1b+c,1c+a,1a+b\dfrac{1}{b + c}, \dfrac{1}{c + a}, \dfrac{1}{a + b} are in A.P.,

1c+a1b+c=1a+b1c+a(b+c)(c+a)(c+a)(b+c)=(c+a)(a+b)(a+b)(c+a)ba(c+a)(b+c)=cb(a+b)(c+a)bab+c=cba+b\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{c + a} - \dfrac{1}{b + c} = \dfrac{1}{a + b} - \dfrac{1}{c + a} \\[1em] \Rightarrow \dfrac{(b + c) - (c + a)}{(c + a)(b + c)} = \dfrac{(c + a) - (a + b)}{(a + b)(c + a)} \\[1em] \Rightarrow \dfrac{b - a}{(c + a)(b + c)} = \dfrac{c - b}{(a + b)(c + a)} \\[1em] \Rightarrow \dfrac{b - a}{b + c} = \dfrac{c - b}{a + b} \\[1em]

⇒ (b − a)(a + b) = (c − b)(b + c)

⇒ ab + b2 − a2 − ab = bc + c2 − b2 − bc

⇒ b2 − a2 = c2 − b2

⇒ b2 − a2 = c2 − b2

We have,

b2 − a2 = c2 − b2

Since consecutive differences are equal,

Therefore,

a2, b2, c2 are in A.P.

Hence, a2, b2, c2 are in A.P.

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